Sunday, January 30, 2022

Kerala PSC Laboratory technician solved paper 2022

Kerala PSC Laboratory technician provisional answer key 2022
Question Code: 007/22
Medium of Question- English
Name of Post: Laboratory Technician Gr II
Department: IMS/ Health etc 
Cat. Number: 101/2019, 144/2021, 359/2020, 
528/2019, 198/2021 to 200/2021, 338/2020, 
099/2019 & 394/2020
Date of Test: 28.01.2022

1. In  a  case  of  Acute  Lymphoblastic  Leukemia,  the  lymphoblasts demonstrated strong localized  positivity with acid phosphatase.

The  cells  were  positive  for  CD2  and  CD7  and  negative  for  CD19,  CD24,  and  CD20. These blasts are most  likely:

(A) Lymphoid  stem  cells

(B) T  lymphoblasts

(C) B  lymphoblasts

(D) Undifferentiated  blasts


2. A patient with anemia of chronic disease  is most  likely to have which set of  laboratory test  results?

(A) MCV  decreased,  serum  iron  decreased,  serum  ferritin  decreased,  TIBC  and  % saturation  decreased

(B) MCV  normal,  serum  iron  increased,  serum  ferritin  decreased,  TIBC  and  % saturation  decreased

(C) MCV  normal,  serum  iron  decreased,  serum  ferritin  increased,  TIBC  and  % saturation decreased

(D) MCV  decreased,  serum  iron  increased,  serum  ferritin  increased,  TIBC  and  % saturation  increased


3. An increase in  the  reticulocyte  count  is  accompanied  by :

(A) Suppressed maturation  of  normoblasts  in  the  bone marrow

(B) A shift  to  the  left  in  the  oxygen dissociation curve

(C) Polychromasia  on  the  Romanovsky  stained  blood  smear

(D) An  increase  in  direct  serum  bilirubin


4. A 8-year-old boy presents with  intramuscular hematomas and recurrent hemarthroses. Laboratory  tests  reveal  normal  platelet  count  bleeding  time,  and  PT,  but  the  PTT  is prolonged.  This  condition most  likely  results  from  an  abnormality  involving :

(A) Chromosome  8

(B) Chromosome  14

(C) Chromosome  21

(D) X  Chromosome


5. A patient is suspected of having hemolytic anemia.  Numerous spherocytes are present in  the  blood  smear,  and  the  reticulocyte  count  is  18%.   What  test  should  be  done  to determine whether  this  is  an  autoimmune process  ?

(A) Direct  Antiglobulin  Test  (DAT)

(B) Osmotic  Fragility  Test

(C) Urinalysis

(D) Serum  Bilirubin


6. A joint aspiration is performed on a 60 year old lady with painful swollen elbow, and a sample  is  sent  to  the  laboratory.    A  cytocentrifuged  slide  is  examined  with  polarized light  shows  needlelike  intracellular  and  extracellular  crystals  which  exhibit  negative birefringence  compensator.    These  crystals  would  be  best  identified  as  which  of  the following  ?

(A) Calcium pyrophosphate

(B) Cholesterol

(C) Monosodium urate

(D) Steroids


7. A  thoracentesis  is  performed  on  a  large  pleural  effusion  yielded  1.2  L  of  thick,  yellow

fluid.    Laboratory  studies  show  a  total  protein  of  4.5  g/dL  (serum=6  g/dL)  lactate

dehydrogenase  40 U/L  (serum  =  50  u/L)  and  total  leukocyte  count  of  20,000/microlitre

with 90% segmented neutrophils.  Which statement  fits most well  for  this  fluid ?

(A) This  is an exudate

(B) This  is a transudate

(C) This  is a chylous fluid

(D) This  is unlikely  to be  of an  infectious  etiology


8. Hematuria with dysmorphic RBCs  is a hallmark of :

(A) Renal  Tuberculosis

(B) Acute  Glomerulonephritis

(C) Chronic  Renal  Failure

(D) Renal  Calculi


9. Microalbuminuria  is defined as  level of albumin  in urine at range of :

(A) 100-150 mg/day

(B) 150-200 mg/day

(C) 30-300 mg/day

(D) 300-600 mg/day


10. A  51-year-old  man  is  admitted  following  an  episode  of  hematemesis  in  which  he remembers  vomiting about a  liter  of dark  red bloody vomitus  into  the.  He  is  found  to have  orthostatic  hypotension.    His  Hgb  is  6.2  g/dL,  Hct  18.8%, MCV  74  fL,  platelet count 90,000/uL, and WBC count 10,100/uL.  His prothrombin time is 12.1 seconds and partial  thromboplastin  time  26.2  seconds.   Which  of  the  following  blood  products  is most appropriate  for this man ?

(A) Whole  blood

(B) Cryoprecipitate

(C) Fresh  frozen  plasma

(D) Packed  RBC’s


11. A  recipient  developed  a  sudden  drop  in  blood  pressure  following  transfusion,  though he remained afebrile.  Which  of  the  following conditions  is most  likely  to be  found ?

(A) Septicemia

(B) Graft-versus-host  disease

(C) Penicillin  allergy

(D) IgA  deficiency


12. One  unit  of  FRESH  FROZEN  PLASMA  prepared  from  whole  blood  contains __________ ml  of  plasma.

(A) 100-150

(B) 250-400

(C) 200-250

(D) 50-150


13. Coombs  control  cell  consists  of :

(A) Type O  positive  cells  coated with  Anti D

(B) Type O negative  cells  coated with Anti D

(C) Type  A  positive  cells  coated with  Anti D

(D) Type A negative  cells  coated with Anti D


14. Nucleic  acid  Amplification Test  for HIV  was  instituted  in  donor  testing  protocols to :

(A) Identify  donors with  late  stage HIV who  lack  antibodies

(B) Confirm  the  presence  of  anti HIV  in asymptomatic HIV  INFECTED DONORS

(C) Reduce  window  period  to  detect  virus  earlier  than  other  available  tests

(D) Detect  antibodies  to  specific  viral  proteins  including  p24


15. Gauge  of  needle  ideal  for  blood  transfusion  generally  is :

(A) 21 G

(B) 25 G

(C) 16 G

(D) 10 G


16. Which  of  the  following  is an  example  of  Iron Hematoxylin ?

(A) Mayers  Hematoxylin

(B) Harris’s  Hematoxylin

(C) Weigerts  Hematoxylin

(D) Gills  Hematoxylin


17. Which  of  the  following microtome  is  better  for  cutting  large  specimens  for museum  ?

(A) Rotary  microtome

(B) Rocking  microtome

(C) Sledge  microtome

(D) Sliding  microtome


18. Which  of  the  following  is  a  routinely used  clearing  agent  in histopathology  ?

(A) Chloroform

(B) Xylene

(C) Benzene

(D) Cedarwood  oil


19. Which of the  following  is not a slide adhesive ?


(B) Mayer’s  egg albumin

(C) Chrome  alum-gelatin



20. Which of the following is not an aqueous mounting media ?

(A) Glycerine  jelly

(B) Apathy’s media

(C) Fructose  syrup

(D) Canada balsam


21. Which among the following is the best stain for demonstration of Barr Body?

(A) Papanicolaou  stain

(B) Orcein  stain

(C) Hematoxylin & Eosin  stain

(D) Shorr stain


22. Which  of  the  following  EA  (Eosin  Azure)  is  preferred  for  non-gynaecological  smears  ?

(A) EA 50

(B) EA 36

(C) EA 65

(D) EA 25


23. Which  of  the  following  fixative  is not useful  in a Millipore Filter  (membrane  filter) ?

(A) 95%  Ethyl  alcohol

(B) 80%  Isopropyl  alcohol

(C) 100% Methanol

(D) 80%  Propanol

24. Which among the following is the most suitable  fixative  for gastric washings ?

(A) 50% Ethanol

(B) 70% Ethanol

(C) 95% Ethanol

(D) None  of  the above


25. Carnoy’s  fixative  do  not  contain  __________.

(A) 95% Ethanol

(B) Glacial  acetic  acid

(C) Chloroform

(D) Formaldehyde


1 B         2 C             3 C             4 D         5 A         6 C         7 A             8 B         9 C 

10 D         11 D         12 C          13 A        14 C         15 C         16 C         17 C         18 B 

19 A         20 D         21 B         22 C         23 C         24 C         25 D


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