Thursday, September 23, 2021

Kerala PSC Assistant Professor in Obstetrics and Gynaecology solved paper 2021

Kerala PSC Assistant Professor in Obstetrics and Gynaecology previous question paper 2021
Question Paper Code: 7/2021/OL
Category Code: 010/2020
Exam: Assistant Professor in Obstetrics and Gynaecology
Date of Test 15-03-2021
Department Medical Education Services
Questions (01 to 25) : Click here
Question26:-Medical management of endometriosis - Find the FALSE statement
A:-Approximately 85% of women with endometriosis and pelvic pain who are treated with GnRH agonists experience relief of their pain
B:-Dienogest is effective in improving endometriosis-associated pain and may even help overcome progesterone resistance by increasing the number of progesterone receptors
C:-Estrogen-progestin contraceptives is cytoreductive and halts progression of endometriosis in upto 90% of affected women when taken continuously
D:-The levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine device is of value in women with deep infiltrating rectovaginal endometriosis in reducing pain and dysmenorrhea recurrence following surgical therapy
Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question27:-Find the INCORRECT statement regarding Ectopic pregnancy
A:-the overall risk of recurrence is approximately 10% for women with one previous ectopic pregnancy and at least 25% for women having two or more
B:-estrogen-progestin contraceptives and vasectomy are associated with the lowest absolute incidence of ectopic pregnancy (0.005 ectopic pregnancies/1,000 women years)
C:-if pregnancy does occur with an IUD in situ, the risk for ectopic pregnancy is as high as 80%
D:-approximately one-third of all pregnancies resulting from sterilization failure are ectopic
Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question28:-Medical Management of Ectopic pregancy-Find INCORRECT statement
A:-In 85% cases, serum β-hCG concentrations rise somewhat between days 1 and 4 and does not necessarily indicate failed treatment
B:-Medical treatment is not contraindicated for ectopic pregnancies with serum β-hCG concentrations greater than 5,000 IU/L or presence of embryonic heart activity, but the likelihood of treatment failure and the risk of tubal rupture are increased substantially
C:-Anti D immunoglobulin need be administered only tononsensitized Rh-negative women with ectopic pregnancy undergoing surgical management
D:-Free peritoneal fluid may be observed in almost 40% of women with early unruptured ectopic pregnancies and that the presence or absence of cul-de-sac fluid does not accurately predict the success or failure of medical treatment
Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question29:-Fetoplacental blood volume at term is approximately
A:-125 ml/kg of fetal weight
B:-80 ml/kg of fetal weight
C:-45 ml/kg of fetal weight
D:-240 ml/kg of fetal weight
Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question30:-Find the INCORRECT statement regarding international guidelines on vaccination in pregnancy
A:-A dose of tetanus-diphtheria-acellular pertussis (Tdap) is ideally given to gravidas between 27 and 36 weeks' gestation
B:-All women who will be pregnant during influenza season should be offered vaccination, regardless of gestational age
C:-Avoid becoming pregnant for atleast one month after MMR vaccination
D:-HPV vaccination may be administered to high risk pregnant women after the first trimester of pregnancy
Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question31:-The FALSE statement regarding fetal biometry by USS is
A:-Until 14 weeks' gestation, the Crown-Rump Length (CRL) is accurate to within 5 to 7 days
B:-The biparietal diameter (BPD) most accurately reflects gestational age, with a variation of 7 to 10 days in the second trimester
C:-If the head shape is flattened-dolichocephaly or rounded brachycephaly, the Head Circumference (HC) is more reliable than the BPD
D:-To measure the AC, a circle is placed outside the fetal skin in a transverse image that contains the stomach, the kidneys and the confluence of the umbilical vein with the portal sinus
Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question32:-All the following are indications for fetal ECHO EXCEPT
A:-thick nuchal translucency
B:-monochorionic twin gestation
C:-maternal anti cardiolipin antibodies
D:-maternal pregestational diabetes orphenylketonuria
Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question33:-Fetal renal pelviectasis - Find the CORRECT statement
A:-is present in 20 to 30 percent of fetuses
B:-in 30 percent of cases, it is transient or physiological
C:-the pelvis is typically considered dilated if it exceeds 4 mm in the second trimester or 7 mm at approximately 32 weeks' gestation
D:-mild pyelectasis in the second trimester is not considered a soft marker for down syndrome
Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question34:-All the statements about Hydramnios (Polyhydramnios) are TRUE EXCEPT
A:-it is diagnosed when AFI exceeds 24 and complicates 1 to 2 percent of singleton pregnancies
B:-underlying causes of hydramnios include fetal anomalies-in approximately 15 percent and diabetes in 15 to 20 percent
C:-the degree of hydramnios correlates with the likelihood of an anomalous infant
D:-idiopathic hydramnios accounts for upto 30 percent of cases of hydramnios
Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question35:-Find the FALSE statement regarding teratogens in pregnancy
A:-less than 1 percent of all birth defects are caused by medications
B:-80 percent of birth defects do not have an obvious etiology and of those withan identified cause, nearly 95 percent of cases have chromosomal or genetic origins
C:-mono therapy with Levitracetam is associated with a 8-percent major malformation rate, which is slightly higher than that for the general population
D:-sulfonamides and nitrofurantoin are appropriate for use in pregnancy only if suitable alternatives are lacking
Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question36:-All are TRUE regarding cell free fetal DNA EXCEPT
A:-Reliably detected in maternal blood after 9 to 10 weeks' gestation
B:-The proportion of cell-free DNA that is placental is called the fetal fraction and it composes approximately 50 percent of the total circulating cell-free DNA in maternal plasma
C:-The specificity to detect down syndrome, trisomy 18 and trisomy 13 is over 99 percent
D:-Real-time quantitative polymerase chain reaction (PCR) may be used for Rh genotyping, detection of paternally inherited single-gene disorders or fetal sex determination
Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question37:-All are TRUE regarding Prenatal Diagnosis EXCEPT
A:-Biopsy of chorionic villi is typically performed between 10 and 13 weeks' gestation
B:-Transabdominal amniocentesis is generally done between 11 and 14 weeks
C:-FISH studies are usually completed within 24 to 48 hours
D:-Chromosomal MicroArray can often be performed directly on uncultured amniocytes with a turn around time of only 3 to 5 days
Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question38:-All are TRUE regarding Anti D immunoglobulin EXCEPT
A:-300 mcg dose is given for each 15 mL of fetal red cells or 30 mL of fetal whole blood to be neutralized
B:-Anti-D immune globulin may produce a weakly positive-1 : 1 to 1 : 4-indirect coombs titer in the mother
C:-Routine postpartum administration of anti-D immune globulin to at-risk pregnancies within 72 hours of delivery lowers the alloimmunization rate by 50 percent
D:-Antepartum anti-D immune globulin at 28 weeks' gestation reduces the third-trimester alloimmunization rate from approximately 2 percent to 0.1 percent
Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question39:-All are TRUE regarding Non-Stress Test NST EXCEPT
A:-Before 32 weeks, normal accelerations are defined as having an acme that is 10 bpm or more above baseline for 10 seconds or longer
B:-Beat-to-beat variability is under the control of the autonomic nervous system
C:-Loss of reactivity is most commonly associated with fetal hypoxia
D:-Abnormal non-stress test is inadequate to preclude any acuteasphyxial event happening in a 7 day interval
Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question40:-All are TRUE regarding miscarriage EXCEPT
A:-balanced structural chromosomal rearrangements may originate from either parent and are found in 2 to 4 percent of couples with recurrent pregnancy loss
B:-the incidence of euploid abortion rises dramatically after maternal age exceeds 35 years
C:-a threshold CRL of 5 mm with absent cardiac activity is used to diagnose non-viability or embryonic demise
D:-absence of an embryo in a sac with a mean sac diameter (MSD) 25 mm signifies an embryonic pregnancy
Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question41:-In three tier system of CTG interpretation, category III abnormal CTG is all EXCEPT
A:-Absent baseline FHR variability and recurrent late deceleration
B:-Absent baseline FHR variability and recurrent variable deceleration
C:-Absent baseline FHR variability and bradycardia
D:-Prolonged deceleration > 2 min but < 10 min
Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question42:-Absolute contraindications to neuraxial analgesia in labour include all EXCEPT
A:-Maternal coagulopathy
C:-Prophylactic low-molecular-weight heparin within 12 hours
D:-Refractory maternal hypertension
Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question43:-Proven contraindications for the use of PGE2 for induction of labour include all EXCEPT
A:-suspicion of fetal compromise
B:-bronchial asthma
C:-unexplained vaginal bleeding
D:-cephalopelvic disproportion
Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question44:-McRobert's maneuver for relieving shoulder dystocia acts by all the following EXCEPT
A:-straightening of the sacrum relative to the lumbar vertebrae
B:-rotation of the symphysis pubis toward the maternal head
C:-decrease in the angle of pelvic inclination
D:-increase in overall pelvic dimensions
Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question45:-All the following statements are TRUE EXCEPT
A:-Case-control studies are most feasible for examining the association between a relatively common exposure and a relatively rare disease
B:-Strengths of cohort studies include the ability to obtain attributable and relative risks (RRs) because the occurrence of the outcome is being compared in two groups
C:-Phase 3 clinical trials determine the efficacy of treatment for the intended population, compared with other available treatments, assess adverse events and side effects
D:-The negative predictive value (NPV) and positive predictive value (PPV) of a test does not vary with the baseline characteristics of population or prevalence of a disease
Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question46:-The following structures may be injured during sacrospinous ligament fixation EXCEPT
A:-Pudendal nerve
B:-Superior gluteal artery
C:-Inferior gluteal artery
D:-Internal pudendal vessels
Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question47:-All the following statements about ureteric injury are TRUE EXCEPT
A:-75% of all iatrogenic injuries to the ureter result from gynecologic procedures
B:-Laparoscopic hysterectomies have the least rate of ureteral injuries and vaginal hysterectomies the highest
C:-Ninety-one percent of injuries occur at the level of the pelvicureter and only 2% and 7% occur at the upper and middle ureteral thirds
D:-Careful identification of the ureter before securing the infundibulopelvic ligament and uterine artery is the best protection against ureteric injury during hysterectomy
Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question48:-All are TRUE regarding Dermoid cysts of ovary EXCEPT
A:-Malignant transformation occurs in less than 2% of dermoid cysts in women of all ages
B:-Upto 25% of dermoids occur in postmenopausal women
C:-The risk of torsion with dermoid cysts is approximately 50%
D:-They are bilateral in approximately 10% of cases
Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question49:-All are TRUE regarding Endometrial Intraepithelial Neoplasia (EIN) EXCEPT
A:-Approximately 40% to 50% of women with atypical hyperplasia or EIN have concurrent carcinoma
B:-The risk of progression of hyperplasia without atypia to cancer is low but is approximately 30% among those with atypical hyperplasia
C:-Infertile women with EIN treated with high dose progestins should have an endometrial biopsy every 3 months
D:-For women with EIN treated with progestins, recurrence risks approach 10%
Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question50:-According to the FIGO fibroid classification system type 3 is
A:-50% or more of the fibroid diameter within the myometrium
B:-Intramural and entirely within the myometrium, without extension to either the endometrial surface or to the serosa
C:-Abuts the endometrium without any intracavitary component
D:-Located in cervix or broad ligament
Correct Answer:- Option-C


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